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Killtest Shares Huawei HCNA-Cloud Service H13-811 Free Exam Questions For Checking:

Which of the following features are supported by OBS Browser? (Multiple Choices)
A. Static Website Hosting
B. Multi-version control
C. Cross-domain resource sharing
D. External bucket Mount
Answer: CD

What are the main types of protection for Anti-DDoS? (Multiple Choices)
A. Anti-flow attack
B. Anti-data attack
C. Anti-violence resolution
D. Anti-application attack
Answer: AD

After the RDS is enabled with HA, what are the available synchronization modes
for active and standby instances? (multiple choices)
A. Synchronization
B. Semi-synchronous
C. Asynchronous
D. All of the above
Answer: BC

In the cloud computing environment, confidentiality, integrity and availability are still the
fundamental security requirements on the user side.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

When the cloud connection is opened, the port type is 10GE. what is the type of the port?
A. Electrical port
B. Optical port
C. Ethernet port
D. Serial port
Answer: B

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[May 29, 2018] Storage Technical V1 C9020-668 Test Questions

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[May 29, 2018] Storage Technical V1 C9020-668 Test Questions

A customer wants to improve overall. workload performance and is considering adding either an IBM Storwize V7000F or an !BM FlashSystem A9000 to the environment.
Which key performance characteristic differentiates these two products?
A. Queue time
B. Connect time
C. Cache hit rate
D. Latency
Answer: D

A solution architect has determined the amount of spindles needed to satisfy performance and RAID level requirements for an IBM DS8886.
Which tool provides information on the number of spare drives included in the system?
A. Capacity Magic
B Disk Magic
C. e-config
D. STAT
Answer: A

A customer needs to import and export volumes between IBM Spectrum Virtualize clusters that are geographically separated.
How can this be accomplished?
A. Implement IBM Spectrum Archive
B. Snapshots with Transparent Cloud Tiering
C. Utilize tiering-to-tape media
D. Create image mode voIumes
Answer: B

Which IBM flash System A9000 function enables the division of storage system administration tasks into logical domains?
A. Access-based permissions
B. Storage-based permissions
C. Interface-based permissions
D. Role-based permissions
Answer: D

A customer has multiple data types and is looking for space savings on the storage environment.
Which data type can benefit from Real-time Compression?
A. Encrypted user documents
B. Virtual servers
C. Media files
D. Compress
Answer: B

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H12-211 HCNA-HNTD (Huawei Network Technology and Device) Dumps | Killtest

Network administrator configures RIPng protocol in a small IPvs network,
which of the following configuration is correct and effective?
A. [RTA-GigabitEthernet0/0/0] ripng 1 enable
B. [RTA] ripng 1 enable
C. <RTA>ripng 1 enable
D. [RTA-ripng-1] ripng 1 enable
Answer: A

In IPv6 network, Which of the following characteristics does OSPPv3 no longer support?
A. Multi-zoning division
B. Router-ID
C. authentication function
D. to send protocol packets via multicast way
Answer: C

On VRP platform, which command is used to set up data link layer encapsulation type to
HDLC on the Serial port?
A. encapsulation hdlc
B. link-protocol hdlc
C. hdlc enable
D. link-protocol ppp
Answer: B

Make an IP address 10.0.0.1 host access to the Internet, which is the necessary technology?
A. Static Routing
B. Dynamic Routing
C. route redistribution
D. NAT
Answer: D

Which of the following versions of SNMP protocol support encryption feature?
A. SNMPv1
B. SNMPv2
C. SNMPv2c
D. SNMPv3
Answer: D

In STP, assuming that all switches are configured the same priority, switch1 MAC address
is 00-e04c-00-00-40, switch 2 MAC address is 00-e0-fc-00-00-10, switch3 MAC address is
00-e0-fc-00-00-20, switch4 MAC address is 00-e0-fc-00-00-80, the root switch should be ( ).
A. Switch 1
B. Switch 2
C. Switch 3
D. Switch 4
Answer: B

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[New H13-621 Dumps] HCNP Storage Certification CCSN H13-621-ENU Study Guide

Which protocol provides the fastest transfer speed?
A. 10 GE iSCSI
B. FC0E
C. FC
D. Infiniband
Answer: D

From a Windows client perspective, a NAS looks more like a network drive whereas a
SAN looks more like a local drive.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

Which of the following statements is true.
A) An eDevLUN is always on a third party device?
B) A mirror copy should come from a different domain than the local LUN?
A. Statement A is true and Statement B is false.
B. Statement A is false and Statement B is true.
C. Both statements are true.
D. Both statements are false.
Answer: B

SmartDedupe of the OceanStor 5300 V3 is supported only by the thin file system.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

Which of the following statements about SmartErase is/are true.
A) SmartErase allows a disk whose data has been erased to be reused after a
dab destruction task is completed?
B) SmartErase deletes data, that belongs to a specific LUN, permanently from
disks to prevent it from being recovered by unauthorized users using residual data?
A. Statement A is true and Statement B is false.
B. Statement A is false and Statement B is true.
C. Both statements are true.
D. Both statements are false.
Answer: B

Assume you are the administrator of a storage system and you need to plan storage capacity.
The storage device has six disks, and the dab traffic is random and small.
Which of the following is the best capacity plan?
A. RAID 3 (4D+1P) and Low spare space policy.
B. RAID 5 (4D+1P) and Low spare space policy,
C. RAID 3 (3D+1P) and High spare space policy.
D. RAID 5 (3D+1P) and High spare space policy.
Answer: B

A colleague suggests using Hyper Clone to create a remote copy of a LUN to provide
a remote office with the correct data.
This is?
A. Not possible because clones are created within the boundaries of a storage device.
B. Possible but will require a very high bandwidth link.
C. Possible but an expensive solution.
D. Not possible because clones do not provide copies of LUN’s,
Answer: A

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CCNP Collaboration 300-075 CIPTV2 Sample Questions

CCNP Collaboration 300-075 CIPTV2 Sample Questions:

Topic 1, NEW Exam Pool

QUESTION NO: 1
To which subzone can you apply bandwidth limitations?
A. default, traversal, and all manually configured subzones
B. manually configured subzones
C. cluster
D. default
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2
Which two statements regarding you configuring a traversal server and traversal client relationship are true? (Choose two.)
A. VCS supports only the H.460.18/19 protocol for H.323 traversal calls.
B. VCS supports either the Assent or the H.460.18/19 protocol for H.323 traversal calls.
C. VCS supports either the Assent or the H.460.18/19 protocol for SIP traversal calls.
D. If the Assent protocol is configured, a TCP/TLS connection is established from the traversal client to the traversal server for SIP signaling.
E. A VCS Expressway located in the public network or DMZ acts as the firewall traversal client.
Answer: B, D

QUESTION NO: 3
On which two call logs is the media encryption enforced in a Collaboration Edge design? (Choose two)
A. Expressway-C to internal endpoint
B. Expressway-E to outside-located endpoint
C. Expressway-C to Expressway-E
D. Expressway-E to Cisco Unified Communications Manager
E. Expressway-C to Cisco Unified Communications Manager
Answer: BC

QUESTION NO: 4
Which option best describes a service that assembles a network model from configured locations and link data in one or more clusters?
A. LBM Hub
B. LBM
C. Shadow
D. Weight
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 5
Which two options are valid service parameter settings that are used to set up proper video QoS behavior across the Cisco Unified Communications Manager infrastructure? (Choose two.)
A. DSCP for Video Calls when RSVP Fails
B. Default Intraregion Min Video Call Bit Rate (Includes Audio)
C. Default Interregion Max Video Call Bit Rate (Includes Audio)
D. DSCP for Video Signaling
E. DSCP for Video Signaling when RSVP Fails
Answer: A, C

QUESTION NO: 6
Which two features are part of Cisco Unified Mobility? (Choose Two)
A. Mobile Voice Access
B. Device Mobility
C. Enterprise Feature Access
D. Shared line
E. Extension Mobility Cross Cluster
Answer: AC

QUESTION NO: 7
Which three steps are necessary to configure mobile and remote access on Cisco VCS Control? (Choose three)
A. Register voice gateways with Cisco Unified Communications Manager
B. Configure Cisco VCS for Cisco Unified Communication
C. Configure Directory Services for Cisco Unified Communication
D. Discover Cisco Unified Communicators Manager and IM&P Servers.
E. After the discovery confirm the connectivity between Cisco VCS Control with Cisco Unified Communication Manager and IM&P
F. Configure DNS and NTP
Answer: ABF

QUESTION NO: 8
An Enterprise Alternate Number is not reachable in GDPR. What navigation will allow an engineer to configure an automatic switching to a backup number?
A. PSTN failover numbers
B. External Phone Number Mask
C. CFUR
D. Voicemail
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 9
In Cisco Unified Communications manager, where can you configure the default codec between two different regions for all endpoints?
A. Device Pool configuration
B. Service Parameters
C. Enterprise Parameters
D. Endpoint Configuration
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 10
An administrator is setting up analog phones that connect to a Cisco VG310. Which type of gateway or trunk on Cisco Unified Communication Manager for the Cisco VG310 must the administrator set up to allow the phones to have the call pickup feature?
A. H.323 gateway
B. SCCP gateway
C. H.225 trunk
D. MGCP gateway
E. SIP trunk
Answer: B

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Share Huawei H12-221 HCNP-R&S-IERS Exam Questions and Answers

About the Stub area, full Stub area and NSSA, whichi is correct?
A. The Stub area can only flood Type 3 LSAs, and the full Stub area cannot flood any Type 3 LSA (including the default route LSA).
B. The biggest difference between a fully stub area and a stub area is that cannot flood the Type 3 LSA.
C. Stub area can import AS external routes. The NSSA cannot import AS external routes.
D. Stub areas can flood Type 3 and Type 4 LSAs. Full Stub areas cannot flood Type 3 and Type 4 LSAs (except Type 3 LSAs that advertise default routes).
Answer: B

Which of the following command is used to check Type 2 LAS detailed information?
A. display ospf Isdb network
B. display ip ospf Isdb network
C. display ospf Isdb router
D. display ip ospf Isdb router
Answer: A

About the description of MUX VLAN, which is wrong?
A. Each Group VLAN must have a Principal VLAN bound to it.
B. If the VLAN ID is already used for the principal VLAN, the VLAN can no longer be used for VLANIF interfaces, super VLANs and sub VLANs.
C. After MUX VLAN is enabled on a port, you can use it again for VLAN mapping and VLAN stacking configuration.
D. Enterprises can use the Principal PORT to connect to enterprise servers, separate PORT to connect enterprise customers and Group PORT to connect enterprise employees. In this way, enterprise customers and enterprise employees can access enterprise servers, and internal employees can communicate, enterprise customers cannot communicate, and enterprise customers and enterprise employees cannot communicate with each other.
Answer: C

MSTP is also called multiple spanning tree protocol. What problems can be solved in a single spanning tree network through MSTP? (Multiple Choice)
A. Part of the Vlan path is inaccessible.
B. Unable to use traffic sharing.
C. Suboptimal Layer 2 path.
D. Improve business reliability.
Answer: ABC

The LS Sequence Number is used to detect expired and repeated LSA. It is a 32-bit signed integer, so the maximum LS Sequence Number is 0x7FFFFFFE.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

The wrong description about OSPF route aggregation is:
A. Route aggregation means to aggregate the routing information of the same prefix and only advertise one route to other areas.
B. Through route aggregation, routing information can be reduced, thereby reducing the size of the routing table and improving the performance of the router.
C. OSPF has two route aggregation modes: ABR aggregation and ASBR aggregation
D. Route aggregation can be performed on any router in OSPF
Answer: D

About the description of connection type of Router-LSA, which is wrong?
A. Point-to-Point describes a point-to-point connection from this router to a neighboring router.
B. TransNet describes the connection from this router to a Transit network segment.
C. StubNet describes a connection from this router to a Stub network segment.
D. P2MP describes the connection from a local router to multiple neighboring routers.
Answer: D

Although the STP protocol can solve the loop problem, the slow convergence of the network topology affects the user communication quality.
RSTP has made many improvements to STP. Which of the following is not an improvement of RSTP to STP?
A. RSTP has deleted 3 kinds of port states and added 2 kinds of port roles.
B. The RSTP port state specification is based on whether the port forwards user traffic and learns the MAC address, reducing the original five port states to three.
C. The non-root switch running RSTP sends configuration BPDUs at the interval specified by the Hello Timer. This behavior is completely performed by each device.
D. If a port does not receive configuration BPDUs from the upstream device within 4 consecutive Hello Time durations, the device considers that negotiation with this neighbor fails.
Answer: D

Compared to STP, the RSTP protocol defines different port states, including Discarding and Learning. About he description of the two port states, the correct is: (Multiple Choice)
A. The ports in these two states do not forward data frames.
B. Ports in Discarding state do not learn the MAC address table.
C. Ports in the Learning state do not learn the MAC address table.
D. All ports in Discarding state and Learning state do not learn MAC address table
Answer: AB

In the same LAN, if some IGMPv1 routers exist in the LAN, IGMPv1 must be forcibly configured for all routers in the subnet to use normally.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

The matching order of ACL can be out of accordance with sequencing of user configuring the rules for the ACL.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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New Avaya 7491X Exam Questions

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New Avaya 7491X Exam Questions

Which of the following is important when considering regular call center operations?
A. A backup strategy for the call center databases
B. An analysis of the software you choose to create the call center databases
C. A decision for how much room to create for the call center databases
D. A restore strategy for the information in the call center databases
Answer: A

You need to troubleshoot your Best Service Routing (BSR) polling vectors to verify that they are operating as intended.
Which command do you use to do this?
A. monitor bcms hunt group
B. list trace trunk
C. monitor bcms trunk
D. list trace vdn
Answer: D

To improve call handling and agent productivity you set up a vector using Look Ahead Interflow to check if the remote site can accept a call and has an agent available. You only want to interflow calls that are at the top two positions queue.
Which command would be entered in the vector to accomplish this?
A. route-to number 9581234 with cov y if interflow-qpos=2
B. route-to number 9581234 with cov n if interflow-qpos<=2
C. route-to number 9581234 with cov n if interflow-qpos<2
D. route-to number 9581234 with cov y if interflow-qpos>=2
Answer: D

Which two vector variable types are strictly global in scope? (Choose two.)
A. stepcnt
B. dow
C. value
D. ani
E. collect
Answer: C,E

You need to troubleshoot Best Service Routing (BSR) vectors for multi-site routing to verify that they are operating as intended.
Which command would you use to do this?
A. list trace stations
B. list trace vector
C. list trace trunk
D. list trace trac
Answer: D

A call center where agents handles customers with account numbers is using Call Center Elite. The call center wants to offer a survey to customers who complete their tasks to determine the level of service they have received.
What feature would you suggest the call center offers a survey to the people who have called?
A. VDN Return Destination
B. VDN Interflow
C. VDN Override
D. VDN Vectors
Answer: A

Which vector object can replace the Time of day (TOD) global Vector Variable?
A. Vector Routing Table
B. Business Schedule Table
C. Service Hours Table
D. Policy Routing Table
Answer: C

A customer wants to configure their call center for emergencies.
What action would you advise the call center supervisor to use to configure an alternate call path in case of a disaster?
A. Set a value variable and change the value assigned using a feature access code
B. Set a trunk group and change the trunk number using a variable
C. Set a vector directory number with a collect-type variable
D. Set a feature access code that detects a power outage and reroutes calls automatically
Answer: D

What property of the SET command makes the command unique when dealing with variables?
A. The SET command allows variables to be manipulated using arithmetic and string operators
B. The SET command allows you to place calls in a particular queue
C. The SET command allows a group of variables to follow a specific pattern
D. The SET command reassigns variables to new values during the process of a vector
Answer: A

Which operator of the SET command allows you to check number validation in dialed strings using Luhn’s algorithm?
A. MOD10
B. ADD
C. CATR
D. SEL
Answer: A

A customer wants to routinely monitor their vectors for unexpected results.
How should they monitor their results?
A. Use the System Maintenance > Reports >Error Log report in the Call Management System
B. Use the list history command in the Communication Manager
C. Use the display events command in the Communication Manager
D. Use the Exceptions > Reports > Vector Exceptions in the Call Management System
Answer: C

Which three server applications can be duplicated to provide a level of redundancy? (Choose three.)
A. Integrated Data Server
B. Application Management Server
C. License Director Server
D. XML Server
E. Media Director
Answer: B,C,D

A call center has two sets of server applications in the primary location, Seattle and in the secondary location, New York. In Seattle, a significant storm has shut down the offices and there is no electricity available.
What happens with the call center?
A. When the primary XML Server loses power, the secondary XML server in New York has to be manually set by the IT department. It then can signal to deliver work items to agents.
B. When the primary XML Server loses power, the secondary XML server in New York will take a few seconds to automatically connect. It then can signal to deliver work items to agents.
C. When the primary License Director Server loses power, the License Director server in New York automatically starts the XML and Media Director Servers to start routing contacts to agents.
D. When the primary License Director Server loses power, the License Director server requires a manual restart to control the XML Server in New York. Contacts are then routed to agents.
Answer: B

You are having problems with Avaya Aura® Call Center Elite Multichannel and you are considering a work around.
In which phase of the 8 disciplines of troubleshooting do you try to see if you can work around the problem until a more permanent solution is found?
A. D4 – define escape points
B. D2 – describe the problem
C. D1 – establish a team
D. D3 – develop interim containment actions
E. D5 – choose corrective actions
Answer: D

Before you call Global Support Services (GSS), you must have a good understanding of the problem.
Which three questions should you be able to answer before you call GSS? (Choose three.)
A. Do you have a record of all login IDs and passwords for the server?
B. Are there configuration changes to the system?
C. Is the problem recorded in the knowledge base?
D. What are the affected components?
E. Does the server use supported operating system?
Answer: B,C,D

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[2018] HCNP-Storage-CDPS H13-623 Study Guide | Killtest

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[2018] IBM C9010-262 Exam PDF Questions Answers | Killtest

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Comparing an Oracle Exadata to an E870, what advantage does an E870 have when compared to the Exadata?
A. E870 supports the Oracle 12c database.
B. E870 provides an ability to add cores and memory in a more granular manner.
C. E870 provides more cores for greater scaling.
D. E870 adds support for external storage.
Answer: A

How is the 19 inch PCIe Gen3 I/O Expansion Drawer connected on POWER8 systems?
A. PCle x8 SR-IOV adapter
B. PCIe Gen3 Infiniband adapter
C. GX++ bus
D. Optical CXP Converter adapter
Answer: D

A retail customer has implemented the following at each store location:
• A Linux-based POS9 (Point of Sale) application
• A data collection application on an x86 system
• An additional S822L running data analytics
The customer wants to consolidate to a single system in each store. They prefer the POWER platform, but stated concern about the data structure of the POS systems.
What can be presented to the customer to minimize this concern?
A. The ability of Power Systems to support little-Endian and big-Endian Linux instances on the same server.
B. The memory system of Power Servers is Endian neutral.
C. The POS system can be re-compiled to support the big-Endian structure needed by the analytics application.
D. PowerKVM enables Endian neutrality.
Answer: A

In addition to higher bandwidth and lower latency of eDRAM on POWER8 over SRAM on x86, what is another compelling benefit of POWER8 technology?
A. Lower Power Consumption
B. Less costly
C. Less CPU overhead
D. Appearance of more physical Memory
Answer: C

A customer is purchasing a new POWER8 Server and will make a choice between PowerVM and PowerKVM.
What is an advantage of PowerVM over PowerKVM?
A. Memory Deduplication
B. NPIV support
C. MR-IOV support
D. Micro Threading
Answer: B

Which component of IBM Cloud Manager with OpenStack allows clients to automate how they build, deploy, and manage their infrastructure?
A. Chef
B. Nova
C. Neutron
D. Cinder
Answer: A

A client would like to automate provisioning of new virtual machines with an end user self-service interface.
Which of the following will provide that functionality?
A. IBM Cloud Manager with OpenStack
B. PowerVC
C. IBM Platform Resource Scheduler
D. POWER8C
Answer: A

A managed service provider offering retail cloud services on E870 with DS8870 storage would like to use storage copy services to replicate data between a primary and secondary data center located 200 miles (322 km) apart.
Which product is required?
A. FlashCopy
B. Metro Mirror
C. Global Mirror
D. Snapshot
Answer: C

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[2018] Huawei HCNP-R&S Exam H12-224 Training Guide | Killtest

[2018] Huawei HCNP-R&S Exam H12-224 Training Guide | Killtest

Two Level-1 routers in different areas can establish a neighbor relationship.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

Which of the following tasks need to be completed during the planning stage of a project? (Multiple Choice)
A. Work out the technical design
B. Know the project background
C. Determine the model of network devices in the project
D. Make clear the requirements of a project
E. Plan IP addresses
Answer: BD

RSTP provides different functions in different scenarios.
Which of the following statements are false?
A. If the edge port on the switch enabled with BPDU protection receives RST BPDU, the switch sets the edge port as a non-edge-port and triggers STP calculation.
B. The role of the designated port that is enabled with root protection cannot be changed.
C. When the designated port enabled with root protection receives optimal RST BPDUs, the port enters the Discarding state and does not forward packets. If the port does not receive optimal
D. RST BPDUs within a certain period of time, the port will automatically restore to the Forwarding state.
E. After TC protection is enabled, you can set the number of times the switch processes TC BPDUs within a certain period.
Answer: A

In the port mirroring, real and reliable data must be collected in real time.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

Which of the following statements regarding the firewall zone security level is false?
A. The default security level of the new zone is 1.
B. Only the security level of the user-defined zone can be configured.
C. The configured security level cannot be changed.
D. Two zones cannot be configured with the same security level.
Answer: A

Which information of labels is used for simple traffic classification?
A. DSCP priority
B. IP precedence
C. MPLS EXP priority
D. 802.1p priority
Answer: C

In a route-policy, which of the following BGP attributes can be used in if-match clauses? (Multiple Choice)
A. Local-Preference
B. AS_Path
C. TAG
D. Community
Answer: BD

Which of the following statements regarding Huawei eSight network management software is false?
A. Multiple users can be created for network management.
B. Users may be asked to log in to eSight from specified IP addresses in specific time ranges.
C. The administrator can force unauthorized login users to log out.
D. The login time of the administrator role also can be limited.
Answer: D

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