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IBM i2 retail solutions provide comprehensive investigative tools to detect and disrupt the full range of retail fraud. Choose the option that applies.
A. Combat returns fraud, protect your business from e-commerce attacks, detect and disrupt internal and external fraud /theft
B. Analyze and defeat organized crime rings, disrupt counterfeiting and protect your brand, lost product and other inventory issues
C. All of the above
D. None of the above
Answer: D

What are the software components of Intelligent Law Enforcement?
A. Analysts Notebook, Ibridge and Coplink
B. Coplink,Intelligent Analysis and Intelligent Operations
C. Coplink. Cognos and SPSS
D. Websphere,Intelligentanalysis. Coplink
Answer: D

Which is NOT part of the IAP security model?
A. ARPASECcntrl 6.5.32
B. Security Classification-based on the clearance level of the user.
C. Role based security-based on the users roles or groups
D. Compartment based security-based on the user’s need to know
Answer: B

If you want to get the sum of the link label values of all single arrowhead links pointing away from the entity, which analysis attribute below should you use?
A. Entity Sum Link Flow
B. Entity Sum Links
C. Entity Sum Links From
D. Entity Sum Links To
Answer: C

In order to utilize multiple repositories either within IAP or external, what application within NDI would a user use?
A. Data must reside within IAP
B. Dynamic import tool
C. Intelligence Portal
D. None of the above
Answer: C

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A WebSphere Application Server cell was configured with a deployment manager node and a custom node. An operator manually changed some configuration files in the custom node, and the node became out of synch with the master repository.
The system administrator used the Synchronize button in the system administration session of the Integrated Solutions Console (ISC) to try to resynchronize the node, but the node remained out of sync.
What should the administrator do to fix it?
A.Use the Full Resynchronize button.
B.Invoke “sync” operation on NodeSync MBean.
C.Recreate the custom profile with the same name without deleting the node.
D.Manually copy all the deployment manager configuration files to the custom node.
Answer: A

A system administrator needs to install WebSphere Application Server using response files, so that silent install can be done. The administrator has ensured that all required prerequisites have already been installed and, has downloaded and expanded the required WebSphere Application Server installation files.
What can the administrator run to install the product?
A.install -options responsefile.xml -silent
B.install -acceptLicense -options responsefile.xml -silent
C.install -acceptLicense input responsefile.xml -log logfile.txt
D.IBMIM -acceptLicense -input responsefile.xml -log logfile.txt
Answer: A

The computer where a federated node was running had a failure and cannot be recovered. A system administrator wants to recreate the node with the same configurations in another computer.
Which steps should the administrator execute in order to recover the damaged node?
A.Configure the new computer with a different hostname. Create a custom profile with the same name. Federate to the cell using the command addNode with the default options.
B.Configure the new computer with a different hostname. Create a custom profile with a different name. Federate to the cell using the command addNode with the option -asExistingNode.
C.Configure the new computer with the same hostname. Create a custom profile with the same name. Federate to the cell using the command addNode with the option -asExistingNode.
D.Configure the new computer with the same hostname. Create a custom profile with the same name. Federate to the cell using the command addNode with the options -includeapps.
Answer: C

A system administrator ran the backup Config command to backup the configuration using the nostop option. The administrator changed the properties for the service integration environment by modifying the sib.properties file. During testing the administrator noticed Service Integration Bus related errors and wanted to restore the service integration environment. The administrator used the restore config command, but the tuning properties for the service integration environment were not restored.
How can the administrator prevent this issue?
A.Use full repository checkpoints for both the backup and the restore.
B.Use the restoreconfig command with -nostop for the restore.
C.Use the manageprofiles command for both the backup and the restore.
D.Use the backupconfig command without -nostop for the backup Use the restoreconfig command without -nostop for the restore.
Answer: B

A system administrator needs to create a cell for a test environment. The administrator uses the Profile Management Tool (PMT) to create the deployment manager profile using the advanced profile creation option and creates a custom profile using the typical profile creation option. The administrator examines the log files for the custom profile creation and sees an INSTCONFFAIL message indicating the deployment manager was not running during the custom profile creation.
How should the administrator fix this?
A.Delete the custom profile. Start the deployment manager. Create the custom profile again.
B.Start the deployment manager. Use PMT to re-create the custom profile.
C.Use the syncNode command to synchronize the node.
D.Run the addNode command to federate the custom profile.
Answer: A

A system administrator suspects that the slow performance of an application might be caused by lock contention.
To debug this further, what can the administrator do using IBM Support Assistant?
A.Analyze the running server using IBM Monitoring and Diagnostic Tools for Java -Health center.
B.Collect a javacore and analyze it using IBM Monitoring and Diagnostic Tools for Java – Health Center.
C.Collect three thread dumps at equal time intervals and analyze them using IBM Monitoring and Diagnostic Tools for Java – Dump Analyzer.
D.Collect three system dumps at equal time intervals and analyze them using IBMMonitoring and Diagnostic Toolsfor Java – Memory Analyzer.
Answer: A

A system administrator,Admin1, with Administrator privileges has archived full repository checkpoints. Another administrator,Configurator1,with Configurator privileges has copied the checkpoint contents directory from one of the archived check points to its original location.Configurator1tries to restore the configuration using the copied archived checkpoint contents and the restore fails.
How canConfigurator1restore the configuration using the copied archived full repository checkpoint?
A.Copy the archived checkpoint metadata directory to its original location.
B.Increase the Automatic checkpoint depth to keep all the delta checkpoints.
C.Delete the delta checkpoints taken after the full repository checkpoint was taken.
D.Ask an administrator to update the privileges for Configurator1 to matchAdmin1.
Answer: B

A system administrator needs to install WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V8.5.5 multiple times and would like to automate the task of installing the product. The administrator wants to create a response file based on an initial installation and use this for future installations.
How can the administrator accomplish this task?
A.Use the IBM Packaging Utility.
B.Use the Installation ManagerConsolemode.
C.Complete a silent installation with the -log option.
D.Start the Installation Manager GUI with the -record option.
Answer: D

A system administrator has installed WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V8.5.5 using the silent installation process and needs to verify that the installation completed successfully.
What does the administrator need to do to verify a successful installation?
A.Launch the Installation Manager GUI, and verify the installation by going to File -> View Installed Packages.
B.Run the command IBMIM listinstalledPackages and check that the appropriate WebSphere Application Server package is listed.
C.Check for INSTCONFSUCCESS message at the end of the <webSphere Application Server install directory><log directory>log.txt file.
D.Use the installer command to compare the checksum of the product file to the correct checksum value in the bill-of-materials file and make sure that the checksums match.
Answer: C

The installation of WebSphere Application Server did not complete successfully, and a system administrator needs to troubleshoot the installation.
What can the administrator do to identify the cause of the installation failure?
A.Run the installer command with the appropriate command line options.
B.Check the files under the Agent data location of IBM Installation Manager.
C.Check the files under the logs directory of IBM Installation Manager installation directory.
D.Check the log.txt under <WebSphere Application Server install directory><log directory>.
Answer: D

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C2090-622 IBM Cognos 10 BI Administrator
C2090-625 IBM Cognos 10 BI Data Warehouse Developer
C2090-635 IBM Cognos 10 BI OLAP Developer
C2090-642 IBM Cognos 10 BI Scorecard Developer
C2090-645 IBM Cognos 10 BI Multidimensional Author
C2020-615 IBM Cognos Real Time Monitor
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In Report Studio, an author creates a list report containing columns for Staff Name, Order number, and Revenue. The author wants to burst this report to various sales staff members. Each member should see only data relating to sales they have made. What must the author do to specify that the burst report output will contain only data for the appropriate sales staff member?
A. In the report layout, create a master-detail relationship on the Staff Name data item.
B. In the report layout, add the Staff Name data item as a property of the List object.
C. In the burst options for the report, use the Staff Name data item to specify the Burst Recipients.
D. In the burst options for the report, use the Staff Name data item to specify the Burst Groups.
Answer: D

In Report Studio, when would the author need to unlock cells on a report?
A. To merge two report types into a single report.
B. To merge query items into a single column.
C. To merge a query item into a text item.
D. To merge report objects in table.
Answer: B

An author creates a report for bursting. In Report Studio, the author sets the burst type for the report to Directory entries. In Cognos Connection, the author sets the run options to burst the report and send the report by email. If the email addresses for the burst recipients are accessible by IBM Cognos BI, what is the expected result?
A. The report is burst to email addresses only.
B. The report is burst to both email addresses and directory entries.
C. The report is burst to directory entries only.
D. A warning message appears indicating a conflict in the run options.
Answer: B

In Report Studio, an author creates a report using Package A. Users should be able to drill through to target reports created for this package. What must the author do?
A. Enable package drill-through behavior for the report.
B. Add this report as a source report for each target created for the package.
C. Add all drill-through definitions created for the package as targets for the source report.
D. Add all drill-through definitions created for the package to the scope of the report.
Answer: A

In Report Studio, an author creates a weekly sales report and modifies the global class settings in the report. Which reports will this modification affect?
A. All reports.
B. Reports created using the same package.
C. Reports created within the log on session.
D. Only the current report.
Answer: D

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A customer provides the information shown in the exhibit for the company’s primary database environment. Solution requirements include meeting or exceeding the current I/O rate of the existing environment.

What should the minimum I/O rate be for the new solution?
A. 21 I/Os per second
B. 788 I/Os per second
C. 943 I/Os per second
D. 35458 I/Os per second
Answer: D

When speaking with a customer, which statement is correct for showing the differences between Flash and SSD?
A. SSD amplifies rotational latency.
B. SSD latency is the same as Flash.
C. SSD has to emulate a mechanical disk.
D. SSD uses Field Programmable Gate Array (FPGA) modules.
Answer: C

Which library using LTO-6 tape drives is capable of eight different logical partitions?
A. TS2900
B. TS3100
C. TS3200
D. TS3310
Answer: D

What is a new protocol standard for provisioning storage in a cloud environment?
A. SNIA
B. LINUX
C. OpenStack
D. OpenPower
Answer: C

What should be part of the first discussion with the storage pre-sales technical person when the customer needs to maintain availability of data during repeated physical infrastructure changes?
A. A backup strategy
B. Disaster recovery strategy
C. Data retention requirements
D. Data migration between devices
Answer: D

A customer has a storage system with a number of databases and has a business requirement to provide development with a sample of real data for testing. The customer is also concerned with cost.
Which solution is appropriate for this customer?
A. IBM Spectrum Scale
B. IBM Spectrum Protect
C. IBM Storwize V7000 with Real-time Compression and virtualization
D. IBM Storwize V5000 with Real-time Compression and virtualization
Answer: C

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Which feature of XIV is important to a customer with a lights-out, remotely located data center and that is very concerned about data integrity?
A. Flash caching
B. Proactive self-healing
C. Data-at-rest encryption
D. Advanced System Placement program
Answer: B

Which type of business continuity does a customer provide who makes nightly flash copies at the primary data center?
A. Global Mirror
B. Backup Strategy
C. Disaster Recovery
D. Continuous data protection
Answer: B

Which IBM product should you propose to a customer with multiple PB of unstructured data that require a single name space?
A. V840
B. IBM Spectrum Scale
C. DS8870
D. XIV Hyper Scale
Answer: B

Which statement is true regarding a customer who has existing LTO-3 Tapes and Drives looking to upgrade to LTO-6?
A. Retain the written tapes and a LTO-3 drive for later recovery; new media required with LTO-6.
B. None of the tape cartridges will be writable, however, the data can still be read by the LTO-6 drives.
C. Tapes written by LTO-3 drives will not be readable by LTO-6 drives; unused tapes can be formatted for LTO-6.
D. Retain the written tape cartridges for later recovery; any unused media can be used for later writes with a lower capacity than LTO-6 specific cartridges.
Answer: A

What is the amount of storage needed in an IBM SAN Volume Controller with IBM Spectrum Virtualize software for a 250 TB DB2 database with max compression?
A. 50 TB
B. 71.4 TB
C. 83.3 TB
D. 100 TB
Answer: A

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For which two purposes is a TCO calculation used? (Choose two.)
A. To compare an IBM solution with a competitive solution
B. To compare the warranty cost with the maintenance cost
C. To compare an IBM solution versus an alternative IBM solution
D. To calculate the projected downtime cost for the proposed solution
E. To differentiate between OPEX and CAPEX for the proposed solution
Answer: A,C’

Compared to other enterprise storage systems, which product has made the most changes to be energy efficient?
A. V7000 with Unified
B. XIV with 16Gb FICON
C. V7000 with block only
D. DS8870 with DC-UPS
Answer: D

How will the IBM FlashSystem help improve the performance for the customer’s database application?
A. It will improve latency.
B. It will improve replication.
C. It will improve throughput.
D. It will improve deduplication.
Answer: A

A mainframe customer wants to store petabytes of encrypted backups. The customer does not want to use physical tape any longer but does not wish to change any backup processes.
Which solution should the sales person propose to the customer?
A. TS7740
B. DS8000
C. ProtecTIER
D. XIV Hot Encryption
Answer: A

Which characteristic of a customer’s server defines the storage device that could be attached?
A. Form factor
B. Clock speed
C. Memory size
D. Operating system
Answer:D

Which concern should a sales specialist raise with a customer requesting 4TB drives to support an SAP environment?
A. Higher maintenance costs
B. More capacity than needed
C. Higher power requirements
D. Less performance than needed
Answer: D

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A customer wants to virtualize their storage environment and would like to use NPIV.
Where will storage multipathing take place?
A. Client LPAR
B. VIOS LPAR
C. vSCSI LPAR
D. NFS LPAR
Answer: A

What is the main function of the POWER8 CAPI feature?
A. It improves memory bandwidth
B. It connects auxiliary processors such as FPGAs.
C. It increases the clock frequency speed.
D. It improves cache coherency.
Answer: B

What is an advantage, for the Power System administrator, of using NPIV for using VPIV for storage virtualization?
A. Optimizes mapping of shared storage pools.
B. Reduces the effort of adding storage to the client partitions.
C. Allows easier mapping to virtual SCSI adapters in VIOS.
D. Provides easier provisioning for SR-IOV adapters.
Answer: B

What wodd a customer need to test the Active Memory Expansion feature?
A. A trial AME code from the CoD website
B. PowerVM Enterprise
C. A temporary key frorn the IBM Key Center
D. PowerVM Standard
Answer: A

A customer wants to save on IBM i licensing costs:
– They have three configurable processors and one IBM i license.
– LPAR1 is running IBM i with .5 CPU.
– LPAR2 is running IBM i with .5 CPU.
– LPAR3 is running IBM i with .5 CPU.
– All of the LPARs are uncapped.
– They want to limit the IBM I LPARs to using one core.
How can the customer enforce the limit and saver on their IBM i licensing costs?
A. Change the AIX partition to have .5 CPU entitlement.
B. Put the AIX LPAR in a shared processor pool with one core.
C. Set the entitlement of each IBM I LPAR to ¡°one.¡±
D. Put the IBM I LPARs in a shared processor pool with one core.
Answer: D

Which of the following are required in order to utilize Live Partition Mobility?
A. PowerVM Enterprise Edition
SAN attached disk
Virtual Ethernet
B. Dedicated processors
PowerVM Enterprise Edition
Virtual Ethernet
C. Dedicated processors
Dual VIO Servers
SAN attached disk
Virtual Ethernet
D. Dual VIO Servers
PowerVM Enterprise Edition
SAN attached disk
Two virtual processors
Answer: A

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Property resolution is used in many places. What is the correct format for resolving a property named ¡°portNumber¡± at the environment scope?
A. ${p:environment:portNumber}
B. ${p/environment/portNumber}
C. ${environment:portNumber}
D. ${p:environment/portNumber}
Answer: D

You have a complex network topology where ab IBM UrbanCode Deploy (UCD) server, the QA environment and the Production environment are all installed in different networks. A firewall is established between them.
How can UCD enable the communication between the agents and the server through the firewall?
A. There should be a UCD server installed on each network. The servers create a JMS mesh (via ActiveMQ). All servers know about each other. All services are active on each server.
B. The UCD server can be configured to run agentless, so no agents are required on each network. The network administrator need only make the UrbanCode server accessible in each network.
C. An UrbanCode agent relay should be installed on each network. The agent relay connects a large group of agents to the server with a single connection, which simplifies firewall rules for communicating across networks.
D. An agent gateway should be configured in one agent on each network. This agent will act as a proxy for all communication between the agents on the same network and the server.
Answer: C

A security type is a product area that can have permissions defined for it. Each security type has a set of permissions that affect how users interact with it.
How many security types are available in IBM UrbanCode Deploy?
A. 13
B. 10
C. 3
D. 5
Answer: D

How do you orchestrate deployments to target environments?
A. You use multiple component deployment processes, one for each environment. An application process defines which component process should be executed for a specific environment.
B. You use a switch steps on each deployment process. The switch defines what resource should be used in a determined environment.
C. You define an application. The application maps resources to environments. The same component process can be executed on all environments.
D. You create a selector on the deployment process. The selector chooses the correct resources and agents, based on the environment.
Answer: C

Which customer problem does IBM UrbanCode Deploy address?
A. Testing teams are suffering delays verifying new features due to poor application installation documentation.
B. Development managers are having difficulty getting their teams to achieve good agile planning practices.
C. There is a team of administrators that support the current application portfolio, but they are uncertain about their ability to support growth.
D. Users have many complaints about the ease-of-use concerning a main flagship application user interface.
Answer: B

What is the proper way to reference the environment property ¡°databaseUrl¡± in a component process?
A. ${databaseUrl}
B. //databaseUrk//
C. [databaseUrl]
D. ${p:environment/databaseUrl}
Answer: D

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Which database offering is designed for analytics and integrates seamlessly with Cloudant?
A. Bluemix
B. dashDB
C. Biginsights
D. Data Works
Answer: B

The Explore step within Watson Analytics is intended to:
A. Build dashboard representations of your data for presentations or for later use in external reporting and analysis tools
B. Prepare and configure your tables, columns, and data for use in subsequent stops
C. Explain what is happening to identify trends and discover patterns and relationships in your data that impacts your business using natural language
D. Dig deeper into the driving and contributing factors that underlie the trends in your data
Answer: C

What data movement integration approach is currently in beta with dashDB, but is anticipated to be a strategic capability across CDS for us in 2016?
A. traditional ETL tools
B. online data transfer
C. Ship a drive to the customer to copy the data
D. IBM Aspera
Answer: D

IBM is approached by a health insurance company that currently uses various IBM products on-premises. For compliance reasons, they choose not to use cloud services. Which products would provide them Spark on-premises?
A. IBM does not offer it on-premises
B. IBM Open Platform (lOP) for Apache Hadoop
C. The IBM Analytics for Apache Spark offering includes on premise entitlements
D. Leverage the IBM Databricks relationship
Answer: C

In terms of the three main cloud deployment patterns, Biglnsights for Apache Hadoop would be considered which deployment pattern?
A. Virtual Machines as a Service (VMaaS)
B. Infrastructure as a Service (laaS)
C. Platform as a Service (PaaS)
D. Software as a Service (SaaS)
Answer: D

The Predict step within Watson Analytics is intended to:
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B. Build dashboard representations of your data for presentations or for later use in external reporting and analysis tools
C. Visualize your data to plot trends and discover patterns and relationships that impact your business
D. Prepare and configure your tables, columns, and data for use in subsequent steps
Answer: A

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