CCNP Collaboration 300-075 CIPTV2 Sample Questions

CCNP Collaboration 300-075 CIPTV2 Sample Questions:

Topic 1, NEW Exam Pool

QUESTION NO: 1
To which subzone can you apply bandwidth limitations?
A. default, traversal, and all manually configured subzones
B. manually configured subzones
C. cluster
D. default
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2
Which two statements regarding you configuring a traversal server and traversal client relationship are true? (Choose two.)
A. VCS supports only the H.460.18/19 protocol for H.323 traversal calls.
B. VCS supports either the Assent or the H.460.18/19 protocol for H.323 traversal calls.
C. VCS supports either the Assent or the H.460.18/19 protocol for SIP traversal calls.
D. If the Assent protocol is configured, a TCP/TLS connection is established from the traversal client to the traversal server for SIP signaling.
E. A VCS Expressway located in the public network or DMZ acts as the firewall traversal client.
Answer: B, D

QUESTION NO: 3
On which two call logs is the media encryption enforced in a Collaboration Edge design? (Choose two)
A. Expressway-C to internal endpoint
B. Expressway-E to outside-located endpoint
C. Expressway-C to Expressway-E
D. Expressway-E to Cisco Unified Communications Manager
E. Expressway-C to Cisco Unified Communications Manager
Answer: BC

QUESTION NO: 4
Which option best describes a service that assembles a network model from configured locations and link data in one or more clusters?
A. LBM Hub
B. LBM
C. Shadow
D. Weight
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 5
Which two options are valid service parameter settings that are used to set up proper video QoS behavior across the Cisco Unified Communications Manager infrastructure? (Choose two.)
A. DSCP for Video Calls when RSVP Fails
B. Default Intraregion Min Video Call Bit Rate (Includes Audio)
C. Default Interregion Max Video Call Bit Rate (Includes Audio)
D. DSCP for Video Signaling
E. DSCP for Video Signaling when RSVP Fails
Answer: A, C

QUESTION NO: 6
Which two features are part of Cisco Unified Mobility? (Choose Two)
A. Mobile Voice Access
B. Device Mobility
C. Enterprise Feature Access
D. Shared line
E. Extension Mobility Cross Cluster
Answer: AC

QUESTION NO: 7
Which three steps are necessary to configure mobile and remote access on Cisco VCS Control? (Choose three)
A. Register voice gateways with Cisco Unified Communications Manager
B. Configure Cisco VCS for Cisco Unified Communication
C. Configure Directory Services for Cisco Unified Communication
D. Discover Cisco Unified Communicators Manager and IM&P Servers.
E. After the discovery confirm the connectivity between Cisco VCS Control with Cisco Unified Communication Manager and IM&P
F. Configure DNS and NTP
Answer: ABF

QUESTION NO: 8
An Enterprise Alternate Number is not reachable in GDPR. What navigation will allow an engineer to configure an automatic switching to a backup number?
A. PSTN failover numbers
B. External Phone Number Mask
C. CFUR
D. Voicemail
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 9
In Cisco Unified Communications manager, where can you configure the default codec between two different regions for all endpoints?
A. Device Pool configuration
B. Service Parameters
C. Enterprise Parameters
D. Endpoint Configuration
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 10
An administrator is setting up analog phones that connect to a Cisco VG310. Which type of gateway or trunk on Cisco Unified Communication Manager for the Cisco VG310 must the administrator set up to allow the phones to have the call pickup feature?
A. H.323 gateway
B. SCCP gateway
C. H.225 trunk
D. MGCP gateway
E. SIP trunk
Answer: B

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About the Stub area, full Stub area and NSSA, whichi is correct?
A. The Stub area can only flood Type 3 LSAs, and the full Stub area cannot flood any Type 3 LSA (including the default route LSA).
B. The biggest difference between a fully stub area and a stub area is that cannot flood the Type 3 LSA.
C. Stub area can import AS external routes. The NSSA cannot import AS external routes.
D. Stub areas can flood Type 3 and Type 4 LSAs. Full Stub areas cannot flood Type 3 and Type 4 LSAs (except Type 3 LSAs that advertise default routes).
Answer: B

Which of the following command is used to check Type 2 LAS detailed information?
A. display ospf Isdb network
B. display ip ospf Isdb network
C. display ospf Isdb router
D. display ip ospf Isdb router
Answer: A

About the description of MUX VLAN, which is wrong?
A. Each Group VLAN must have a Principal VLAN bound to it.
B. If the VLAN ID is already used for the principal VLAN, the VLAN can no longer be used for VLANIF interfaces, super VLANs and sub VLANs.
C. After MUX VLAN is enabled on a port, you can use it again for VLAN mapping and VLAN stacking configuration.
D. Enterprises can use the Principal PORT to connect to enterprise servers, separate PORT to connect enterprise customers and Group PORT to connect enterprise employees. In this way, enterprise customers and enterprise employees can access enterprise servers, and internal employees can communicate, enterprise customers cannot communicate, and enterprise customers and enterprise employees cannot communicate with each other.
Answer: C

MSTP is also called multiple spanning tree protocol. What problems can be solved in a single spanning tree network through MSTP? (Multiple Choice)
A. Part of the Vlan path is inaccessible.
B. Unable to use traffic sharing.
C. Suboptimal Layer 2 path.
D. Improve business reliability.
Answer: ABC

The LS Sequence Number is used to detect expired and repeated LSA. It is a 32-bit signed integer, so the maximum LS Sequence Number is 0x7FFFFFFE.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

The wrong description about OSPF route aggregation is:
A. Route aggregation means to aggregate the routing information of the same prefix and only advertise one route to other areas.
B. Through route aggregation, routing information can be reduced, thereby reducing the size of the routing table and improving the performance of the router.
C. OSPF has two route aggregation modes: ABR aggregation and ASBR aggregation
D. Route aggregation can be performed on any router in OSPF
Answer: D

About the description of connection type of Router-LSA, which is wrong?
A. Point-to-Point describes a point-to-point connection from this router to a neighboring router.
B. TransNet describes the connection from this router to a Transit network segment.
C. StubNet describes a connection from this router to a Stub network segment.
D. P2MP describes the connection from a local router to multiple neighboring routers.
Answer: D

Although the STP protocol can solve the loop problem, the slow convergence of the network topology affects the user communication quality.
RSTP has made many improvements to STP. Which of the following is not an improvement of RSTP to STP?
A. RSTP has deleted 3 kinds of port states and added 2 kinds of port roles.
B. The RSTP port state specification is based on whether the port forwards user traffic and learns the MAC address, reducing the original five port states to three.
C. The non-root switch running RSTP sends configuration BPDUs at the interval specified by the Hello Timer. This behavior is completely performed by each device.
D. If a port does not receive configuration BPDUs from the upstream device within 4 consecutive Hello Time durations, the device considers that negotiation with this neighbor fails.
Answer: D

Compared to STP, the RSTP protocol defines different port states, including Discarding and Learning. About he description of the two port states, the correct is: (Multiple Choice)
A. The ports in these two states do not forward data frames.
B. Ports in Discarding state do not learn the MAC address table.
C. Ports in the Learning state do not learn the MAC address table.
D. All ports in Discarding state and Learning state do not learn MAC address table
Answer: AB

In the same LAN, if some IGMPv1 routers exist in the LAN, IGMPv1 must be forcibly configured for all routers in the subnet to use normally.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

The matching order of ACL can be out of accordance with sequencing of user configuring the rules for the ACL.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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New Avaya 7491X Exam Questions

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New Avaya 7491X Exam Questions

Which of the following is important when considering regular call center operations?
A. A backup strategy for the call center databases
B. An analysis of the software you choose to create the call center databases
C. A decision for how much room to create for the call center databases
D. A restore strategy for the information in the call center databases
Answer: A

You need to troubleshoot your Best Service Routing (BSR) polling vectors to verify that they are operating as intended.
Which command do you use to do this?
A. monitor bcms hunt group
B. list trace trunk
C. monitor bcms trunk
D. list trace vdn
Answer: D

To improve call handling and agent productivity you set up a vector using Look Ahead Interflow to check if the remote site can accept a call and has an agent available. You only want to interflow calls that are at the top two positions queue.
Which command would be entered in the vector to accomplish this?
A. route-to number 9581234 with cov y if interflow-qpos=2
B. route-to number 9581234 with cov n if interflow-qpos<=2
C. route-to number 9581234 with cov n if interflow-qpos<2
D. route-to number 9581234 with cov y if interflow-qpos>=2
Answer: D

Which two vector variable types are strictly global in scope? (Choose two.)
A. stepcnt
B. dow
C. value
D. ani
E. collect
Answer: C,E

You need to troubleshoot Best Service Routing (BSR) vectors for multi-site routing to verify that they are operating as intended.
Which command would you use to do this?
A. list trace stations
B. list trace vector
C. list trace trunk
D. list trace trac
Answer: D

A call center where agents handles customers with account numbers is using Call Center Elite. The call center wants to offer a survey to customers who complete their tasks to determine the level of service they have received.
What feature would you suggest the call center offers a survey to the people who have called?
A. VDN Return Destination
B. VDN Interflow
C. VDN Override
D. VDN Vectors
Answer: A

Which vector object can replace the Time of day (TOD) global Vector Variable?
A. Vector Routing Table
B. Business Schedule Table
C. Service Hours Table
D. Policy Routing Table
Answer: C

A customer wants to configure their call center for emergencies.
What action would you advise the call center supervisor to use to configure an alternate call path in case of a disaster?
A. Set a value variable and change the value assigned using a feature access code
B. Set a trunk group and change the trunk number using a variable
C. Set a vector directory number with a collect-type variable
D. Set a feature access code that detects a power outage and reroutes calls automatically
Answer: D

What property of the SET command makes the command unique when dealing with variables?
A. The SET command allows variables to be manipulated using arithmetic and string operators
B. The SET command allows you to place calls in a particular queue
C. The SET command allows a group of variables to follow a specific pattern
D. The SET command reassigns variables to new values during the process of a vector
Answer: A

Which operator of the SET command allows you to check number validation in dialed strings using Luhn’s algorithm?
A. MOD10
B. ADD
C. CATR
D. SEL
Answer: A

A customer wants to routinely monitor their vectors for unexpected results.
How should they monitor their results?
A. Use the System Maintenance > Reports >Error Log report in the Call Management System
B. Use the list history command in the Communication Manager
C. Use the display events command in the Communication Manager
D. Use the Exceptions > Reports > Vector Exceptions in the Call Management System
Answer: C

Which three server applications can be duplicated to provide a level of redundancy? (Choose three.)
A. Integrated Data Server
B. Application Management Server
C. License Director Server
D. XML Server
E. Media Director
Answer: B,C,D

A call center has two sets of server applications in the primary location, Seattle and in the secondary location, New York. In Seattle, a significant storm has shut down the offices and there is no electricity available.
What happens with the call center?
A. When the primary XML Server loses power, the secondary XML server in New York has to be manually set by the IT department. It then can signal to deliver work items to agents.
B. When the primary XML Server loses power, the secondary XML server in New York will take a few seconds to automatically connect. It then can signal to deliver work items to agents.
C. When the primary License Director Server loses power, the License Director server in New York automatically starts the XML and Media Director Servers to start routing contacts to agents.
D. When the primary License Director Server loses power, the License Director server requires a manual restart to control the XML Server in New York. Contacts are then routed to agents.
Answer: B

You are having problems with Avaya Aura® Call Center Elite Multichannel and you are considering a work around.
In which phase of the 8 disciplines of troubleshooting do you try to see if you can work around the problem until a more permanent solution is found?
A. D4 – define escape points
B. D2 – describe the problem
C. D1 – establish a team
D. D3 – develop interim containment actions
E. D5 – choose corrective actions
Answer: D

Before you call Global Support Services (GSS), you must have a good understanding of the problem.
Which three questions should you be able to answer before you call GSS? (Choose three.)
A. Do you have a record of all login IDs and passwords for the server?
B. Are there configuration changes to the system?
C. Is the problem recorded in the knowledge base?
D. What are the affected components?
E. Does the server use supported operating system?
Answer: B,C,D

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Comparing an Oracle Exadata to an E870, what advantage does an E870 have when compared to the Exadata?
A. E870 supports the Oracle 12c database.
B. E870 provides an ability to add cores and memory in a more granular manner.
C. E870 provides more cores for greater scaling.
D. E870 adds support for external storage.
Answer: A

How is the 19 inch PCIe Gen3 I/O Expansion Drawer connected on POWER8 systems?
A. PCle x8 SR-IOV adapter
B. PCIe Gen3 Infiniband adapter
C. GX++ bus
D. Optical CXP Converter adapter
Answer: D

A retail customer has implemented the following at each store location:
• A Linux-based POS9 (Point of Sale) application
• A data collection application on an x86 system
• An additional S822L running data analytics
The customer wants to consolidate to a single system in each store. They prefer the POWER platform, but stated concern about the data structure of the POS systems.
What can be presented to the customer to minimize this concern?
A. The ability of Power Systems to support little-Endian and big-Endian Linux instances on the same server.
B. The memory system of Power Servers is Endian neutral.
C. The POS system can be re-compiled to support the big-Endian structure needed by the analytics application.
D. PowerKVM enables Endian neutrality.
Answer: A

In addition to higher bandwidth and lower latency of eDRAM on POWER8 over SRAM on x86, what is another compelling benefit of POWER8 technology?
A. Lower Power Consumption
B. Less costly
C. Less CPU overhead
D. Appearance of more physical Memory
Answer: C

A customer is purchasing a new POWER8 Server and will make a choice between PowerVM and PowerKVM.
What is an advantage of PowerVM over PowerKVM?
A. Memory Deduplication
B. NPIV support
C. MR-IOV support
D. Micro Threading
Answer: B

Which component of IBM Cloud Manager with OpenStack allows clients to automate how they build, deploy, and manage their infrastructure?
A. Chef
B. Nova
C. Neutron
D. Cinder
Answer: A

A client would like to automate provisioning of new virtual machines with an end user self-service interface.
Which of the following will provide that functionality?
A. IBM Cloud Manager with OpenStack
B. PowerVC
C. IBM Platform Resource Scheduler
D. POWER8C
Answer: A

A managed service provider offering retail cloud services on E870 with DS8870 storage would like to use storage copy services to replicate data between a primary and secondary data center located 200 miles (322 km) apart.
Which product is required?
A. FlashCopy
B. Metro Mirror
C. Global Mirror
D. Snapshot
Answer: C

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[2018] Huawei HCNP-R&S Exam H12-224 Training Guide | Killtest

[2018] Huawei HCNP-R&S Exam H12-224 Training Guide | Killtest

Two Level-1 routers in different areas can establish a neighbor relationship.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

Which of the following tasks need to be completed during the planning stage of a project? (Multiple Choice)
A. Work out the technical design
B. Know the project background
C. Determine the model of network devices in the project
D. Make clear the requirements of a project
E. Plan IP addresses
Answer: BD

RSTP provides different functions in different scenarios.
Which of the following statements are false?
A. If the edge port on the switch enabled with BPDU protection receives RST BPDU, the switch sets the edge port as a non-edge-port and triggers STP calculation.
B. The role of the designated port that is enabled with root protection cannot be changed.
C. When the designated port enabled with root protection receives optimal RST BPDUs, the port enters the Discarding state and does not forward packets. If the port does not receive optimal
D. RST BPDUs within a certain period of time, the port will automatically restore to the Forwarding state.
E. After TC protection is enabled, you can set the number of times the switch processes TC BPDUs within a certain period.
Answer: A

In the port mirroring, real and reliable data must be collected in real time.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

Which of the following statements regarding the firewall zone security level is false?
A. The default security level of the new zone is 1.
B. Only the security level of the user-defined zone can be configured.
C. The configured security level cannot be changed.
D. Two zones cannot be configured with the same security level.
Answer: A

Which information of labels is used for simple traffic classification?
A. DSCP priority
B. IP precedence
C. MPLS EXP priority
D. 802.1p priority
Answer: C

In a route-policy, which of the following BGP attributes can be used in if-match clauses? (Multiple Choice)
A. Local-Preference
B. AS_Path
C. TAG
D. Community
Answer: BD

Which of the following statements regarding Huawei eSight network management software is false?
A. Multiple users can be created for network management.
B. Users may be asked to log in to eSight from specified IP addresses in specific time ranges.
C. The administrator can force unauthorized login users to log out.
D. The login time of the administrator role also can be limited.
Answer: D

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CCIE 400-101 Real Questions

Share CCIE 400-101 Real Questions

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements are true regarding prefix 10.1.0.0/24? (Choose two.)
A. The prefix is in policy, and Cisco PfR rerouted the traffic via 10.4.5.3 Et0/1 because of an OOP event.
B. Cisco PfR is monitoring the prefix via passive NetFlow mode only.
C. Cisco PfR is monitoring the prefix via active, fast, or active throughput IP SLA probe mode only.
D. The prefix is in policy, and Cisco PfR did not reroute the traffic via 10.4.5.3 Et0/1 because the traffic was previously in policy.
E. Cisco PfR is monitoring the prefix via mode monitor, which provides both NetFlow and IP SLA measurements.
Answer: DE

Which feature can mitigate hung management sessions?
A. Control Plane Policing
B. the service tcp-keepalives-in and service tcp-keepalives-out command
C. the service tcp-small servers command
D. vty line ACLs
Answer: B

What are two requirements for BFD static route support? (Choose two)
A. CEF must be configured on all routers that will carry traffic.
B. BFD must be configured on all Ethernet, virtual-template, and dialer interfaces that will carry traffic.
C. All routers that will carry traffic must have the same software version.
D. All routers that will carry traffic must be the same model.
E. Parameters must be configured on all routers that will carry traffic.
F. Parameters must be configured on all interfaces that will carry traffic.
Answer: AF

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two actions can you take to allow the network 172.29.224.0/24 to be reachable from peer 192.168.250.53? (Choose two)
A. Modify the community list to match communities 64513:69040 attached to 172.29.224.0/24.
B. Configure soft reconfiguration to peering 192.168.250.53.
C. Modify the outbound route map to permit all additional routes.
D. Configure additional address families to peering 192.168.250.53.
E. Modify the inbound route map to permit all additional routes
F. Modify the community list to match community 64513:64090 attached to 172.29.224.0/24.
Answer: CF

Which two options are potential impacts of microbursts? (Choose two.)
A. unnecessary broadcast traffic
B. asmmetric routing
C. tail drops
D. invaild checksum errors
E. packet loss
F. inicast flooding
Answer: CE

Which DHCP message type does the DHCP server send to a client to confirm its allocated IP address?
A. DHCPACK
B. DHCPOFFER
C. DHCPDISCOVER
D. DHCPREQUEST
Answer: A

Which statement about a Cisco APIC controller versus a more traditional SDN controller is true?
A. APIC uses a policy agent to translate policies into instructions.
B. APIC supports OpFlex as a Northbound protocol.
C. APIC does support a Southbound REST API
D. APIC uses an imperative model
Answer: A

Which attribute is not part of the BGP extended community when a PE creates a VPN-IPv4 route while running OSPF between PE-CE?
A. OSPF domain identifier
B. OSPF route type
C. OSPF router ID
D. MED
E. OSPF network type
Answer: E

Which command can you enter to prevent a router from displaying Telnet connection messages on the terminal?
A. service telnet-zeroldle
B. ip telnet hidden hostname
C. ip telnet hidden address
D. no ip domain-lookup
E. ip telnet quiet
Answer: E

Which description of Infrastructure as a Service is true?
A. a cloud service that delivers on-demand Internet connection between sites
B. a cloud service that delivers on-demand intranet connection between sites
C. a cloud service that delivers on-demand software services on a subscription basis
D. a cloud service that delivers on-demand resources like networking and storage
Answer: D

Which two statements about VSS are true? (Choose two.)
A. It requires physical switches to be collocated.
B. It is dependent on spanning-tree.
C. It requires three IP addresses per ULAN.
D. Each VSS has a single management IP address
E. It can eliminate the need for HSRP.
Answer: DE

For which reason can two OSPF neighbor routers on the same LAN segment be stuck in the two-way state?
A. The two routers have different MTUs on the interface.
B. The two routers are configured with different priorities.
C. The interface priority is set to zero on both routers.
D. Both routers have the same OSPF router ID.
Answer: C

Which option is an example of SaaS?
A. Google Apps
B. Amazon AWS
C. Google App Engine
D. Microsoft Azure
Answer: A

How does an IPv6 host automatically generate a global address?
A. It prepends its interface identifier to the network prefixes contained in Router Advertisement messages.
B. It appends its interface identifier to the network prefixes contained in Router Advertisement messages.
C. It appends its interface identifier to the network prefixes contained in Router Solicitation messages.
D. It prepends its interface identifier to the network prefixes contained in Router Solicitation messages.
Answer: B

Which statement about the feasible distance in EIGRP is true?
A. It is the maximum metric that should feasibly be considered for installation in the RIB.
B. It is the smallest metric toward the destination encountered …time the destination went from Active tp Passive state.
C. It is the metric that is supplied by the best next hop toward the destination.
D. It is the maximum metric possible based on the maximum hop count that is allowed.
Answer: B

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